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Cyrus Shahmiri
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King of Kings Joined: 07-Aug-2004 Location: Iran Online Status: Offline Posts: 3963 |
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Topic: Contributions Of Islamic Knowledge to The worldPosted: 08-May-2008 at 14:28 |
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Old Persian Chehartara (4-string) -> Assyrian Chetarah -> Greek Kithara -> English Guitar http://www.findfreecollegeessays.com/show_essay/44841.html : "The Assyrians used a lyre/harp-like instrument called a “chetarah†dating at least 2000 BC" http://www.guitarschools.com/guitar-career-guidance.html : Earliest examples of the guitar can be traced back 5000 years to Iran. (3000 BC) |
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gcle2003
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Posted: 08-May-2008 at 11:28 |
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No-one denies there was Arabic music in Spain under the Arabs, or that Andalusia was a chief centre of it. I also already conceded that Sephardic music (like much Sephardic culture) was influenced by the Arabs. Flamenco and fado contain Arabic elements, like microtonality in the melodic line, but are purely local to Spain/Portugal: they had no influence on the development of European music elsewhere (or even the development of court and church music in Spain).
So what's the point of that last post?
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Citizen of Ankh-Morpork
Never believe anything until it has been officially denied - Sir Humphrey Appleby, 1984. |
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pinguin
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Joined: 29-Sep-2006 Location: Chile Online Status: Offline Posts: 7508 |
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Posted: 08-May-2008 at 03:51 |
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Classical Andalusian Music of the Middle Ages that didn't influenced Europe at the slightest bit, but at least are at the root of Flamenco:
Arab Andalusian,
Ladino Andalusian (Jewish)
This style of music was created in Anlalusia by the school of Zyriab. They introduced the oud to Europe (only to Andalusia, of course), and developed the first large ensembles in Iberia only, of course.
Andalusia was a major manufacturing of ouds in Europe. They were exported to Europe, but when passed for France, some workers there put frets on them and converted in lauds... (reference humorpedia)
This is Mozarab music, of Arab influences, that has nothing to do with other music in Europe.
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"He who attempts to count the stars, not even knowing how to count the knots of the 'quipus'(counting string), ought to be held in derision."
Inca Pachacutec (1438-1471) |
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gcle2003
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Posted: 07-May-2008 at 21:15 |
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Interesting thoughts - does the tar syllable also mean 'string' in Sanskrit or Hindi, hence 'sitar'?
To deepen the confusion I can add that a 'gue' is an odd northern Scottish instrument that is bowed and a kind of early viola, but speculating that far back in I-E history is moving out of my sphere of competence.
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Citizen of Ankh-Morpork
Never believe anything until it has been officially denied - Sir Humphrey Appleby, 1984. |
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omshanti
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Joined: 02-Nov-2006 Online Status: Offline Posts: 429 |
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Posted: 07-May-2008 at 20:51 |
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Forgive me for posting 2 posts in a row but I was thinking about the Persian 'tar' and the English 'string' and realised that they both have the t-r sounds. I am not sure about Indo-European languages other than English and Persian, but even if the direct translations did not have the same sounds in them, is it possible that similar concepts are/were expressed with the t-r sounds? If so, maybe it is an Indo-European characteristic to use the sound combination of t-r to express the concept of string, and maybe the Proto-Indo-European word for string or a similar concept had the t-r sounds in it.
If it is an Indo-European characteristic, then it is possible that the Anatolian languages (to which Hittite belonged) which were an Indo-European branch also used the t-r sounds to express the concept of string. So maybe the origin of the name guitar is Anatolian . Also if we follow the Indo-Iranian example, did 'gui' evolve from a number in Anatolian languages? These were just thoughts that came in to my mind. Edited by omshanti - 07-May-2008 at 21:48 |
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omshanti
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Posted: 07-May-2008 at 18:22 |
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I have to say Gcle, that your posts in this thread regarding the origin of guitar have been enlightening. Until now I also was under the impression that guitar came from Persia. I think that the 'tar' part of the term guitar is a pitfall for a Persian speaker regarding this issue of the origin of guitar, because tar means (any kind of) string in Persian (as Cyrus has already written) and guitar happens to be a stringed instrument, making it easy for a Persian speaker to assume it must be Persian. On top of that, there are the examples of all those instruments with numbers in front of 'tar' such as 'Si (30)-tar', 'do(2)-tar' , 'Se(3)-tar' , 'chahar(4)-tar', or just the plain old tar. Even as a child without any linguistic or historical knowledge, I used to wonder about the 'tar' part of guitar and assume that it must have been Persian.
But I have to say, after reading your posts, it seems the origin of guitar is much deeper and more interesting. It was refreshing to know about the Greek, Anatolian and African history of guitar too. Thank you. Edited by omshanti - 07-May-2008 at 21:21 |
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gcle2003
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Posted: 07-May-2008 at 15:34 |
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As an illustration of how tricky this analysis of the derivation of instruments can be, especially only going by the look of them, consider the banjo of which wikipedia says:
and also
![]() Note that the banjo, like the tar, has a skin-covered soundbox
Edited by gcle2003 - 07-May-2008 at 15:38 |
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Citizen of Ankh-Morpork
Never believe anything until it has been officially denied - Sir Humphrey Appleby, 1984. |
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gcle2003
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Posted: 07-May-2008 at 15:08 |
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You're getting close, Cyrus, but there are a couple of points, not the least of which being that you're talking about Persia, and I said some while ago I thought Persian music probably picked up from or contributed to Indian music.
For instance, the frets on a tar are adjustable, making the closest parallel to it among modern and classical instruments the sitar (Is there some significance in the two names?) rather than the guitar. I'd need to know more about Persian music as opposed to Indian and Arab to comment any more on that, but adjustable frets are pretty well necessary for Indian music and helpful to Arab.
The actual tar and sitar however (rather than their precursors) are coeval with the guitar, not antecedent to it.
I already pointed out that the oldest image of a guitar-like instrument we have is Hittite from about 1500 BC, 3,000 years before the date of your picture so I'm not surprised to find similar instruments among Indo-European peoples in general. I also gather that they occur among some Turkic peoples, but I don't know anything about early Turkish music.
But this is really irrelevant to the main point of this discussion. The guitar (or somethng very like it) was known to the ancient Greeks, wherever it came from, and it was not an import into Europe following the Arab expansion. All I am claiming here is that medieval European music was uninfluenced by Arab music, and so far no-one has produced any evidence against that at all, though the development of European music from Greece to Rome and the early Church through to the Middle Ages and the Renaissance (and of course later) is well documented.
Who may have influenced the Greeks originally is speculative because we have no written records, but from around 500BC on we have plenty.
Incidentally I'm dead sure the tar (or any stringed instrument) is not the oldest instrument in the world. That was a drum, or if you're not counting percussion, then the didgeridoo. Edited by gcle2003 - 07-May-2008 at 15:42 |
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Citizen of Ankh-Morpork
Never believe anything until it has been officially denied - Sir Humphrey Appleby, 1984. |
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Cyrus Shahmiri
Tsar
King of Kings Joined: 07-Aug-2004 Location: Iran Online Status: Offline Posts: 3963 |
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Posted: 07-May-2008 at 13:16 |
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As I said in this thread (four years ago), Tar is probably the oldest musical instrument in the world, is it fretted or not? ![]() "The tar is a fretted lute with six strings, five of steel and one of brass. It has a long neck and a double-bellied sound box, covered by a thin stretched sheep skin. Its 26 frets are adjustable and the strings are normally plucked with a plectrum."
![]() Painting from Hasht Behehsht Palace, Safavid Period, 15th century Edited by Cyrus Shahmiri - 07-May-2008 at 13:30 |
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gcle2003
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Posted: 07-May-2008 at 11:49 |
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The so-called 'buzuk' is in fact a bouzouki which any of our Greek friends here will rush to point out is a Greek instrument.
As standard[1] it has fixed frets (like a guitar, though the soundbox and the tuning are different), but there is a version with movable frets which does, with a little manipulation allow for some microtuning to suit Arabic music. It is therefore an instrument currently used in Arab music, but it is not therefore an 'Arab instrument'.
In fact it is more reasonable to argue that the Arabs would have picked it up from the Greeks than the other way around, since the Greeks had it in the 4th century BC. As I pointed out earlier, I'm not claiming the Greeks didn't get some musical influence from earlier cultures. What I'm asserting for the umpteenth time is that the development of medieval European music was unaffected by Arab music.
I think it's generally accepted that Greek music only moved out of the pentatonic 'natural' stage in the 7th century BC. Before that everything is purely speculative, but my own feeling is that the incoming Greeks adopted a lot of their musical styles from the previous inhabitants of the area.
[1] I used to have one that one of my sons picked up in Athens when they were at school there, but it either disappeared in moving around or one of my guitar-playing children annexed it. It is of course very similar to a balalaika (though the strings are tuned differently) which also has versions with movable frets.
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Citizen of Ankh-Morpork
Never believe anything until it has been officially denied - Sir Humphrey Appleby, 1984. |
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pinguin
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Posted: 07-May-2008 at 04:46 |
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The Music and Musical Instruments of the Arab. Wlliam Reeves, 83 Charing Cross Road, W.C.
Edited by pinguin - 07-May-2008 at 04:47 |
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"He who attempts to count the stars, not even knowing how to count the knots of the 'quipus'(counting string), ought to be held in derision."
Inca Pachacutec (1438-1471) |
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gcle2003
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Posted: 06-May-2008 at 23:10 |
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They would be unlikely to have done the latter, since the stringed instruments in use in the middle east right through to the modern era were fretless, unlike the stringed instruments (other than harps and lyres) of Greece (and India for that matter).
We have to be careful here because the kitharis and the kithara are two different, though related instruments, and it's easy to confuse them. One is like a lyre, whereas the other is like a lyre with an added body/soundbox played with a plectrum rather than the fingers directly, more like the modern guitar.
However, I'm not claiming the Greeks were the first to produce a definitely guitar-like instrument. the oldest representation of one I know dates from c. 1500BC at Bosojuk in northern Asia Minor:
![]() where the instrument is not only fretted, but has a distinct neck and an incurving soundbox.
So the Greeks probably picked it up from the Hittites who were there before them. But the tradition still runs through Greece to modern times: there's no need for Arab influence. And indeed as I keep pointing out, the whole idea of a fixed fret instrument is contrary to Arab musical tradition, where instruments - at least the melodic ones - are more expected to emulate the natural human voice.
But I still need to keep repeating the point that this discussion was originally not about the instruments, but about the music played on them.
I've accepted several times that the lute originated with the oud, but the significant fact is that the European lute was used to play European music, while the oud was restricted to Arab music (possibly Persian but again as I earlier said, I don't know much about Persian music and its relationship to Arab or Indian music.
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Citizen of Ankh-Morpork
Never believe anything until it has been officially denied - Sir Humphrey Appleby, 1984. |
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gcle2003
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Posted: 06-May-2008 at 23:04 |
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They would be unlikely to have done the latter, since the stringed instruments in use in the middle east right through to the modern era were fretless, unlike the stringed instruments of Greece (and India for that matter).
We have to be careful here because the kitharis and the kithara are two different, though related instruments, and it's easy to confuse them. One is like a lyre, whereas the other is like a lyre with an added body/soundbox played with a plectrum rather than the fingers directly, more like the modern guitar.
However, I'm not claiming the Greeks were the first to produce a definitely guitar-like instrument. the oldest representation of one I know dates from c. 1500BC at Bosojuk in northern Asia Minor:
![]() where the instrument is not only fretted, but has a distinct neck and an incurving soundbox.
So the Greeks probably picked it up from the Hittites who were there before them. But the tradition still runs through Greece to modern times: there's no need for Arab influence. And indeed as I keep pointing out, the whole idea of a fixed fret instrument is contrary to Arab musical tradition, where instruments - at least the melodic ones - are more expected to emulate the natural human voice.
But I still need to keep repeating the point that this discussion was originally not about the instruments, but about the music played on them.
I've accepted several times that the lute originated with the oud, but the significant fact is that the European lute was used to play European music, while the oud was restricted to Arab music (possibly Persian but again as I earlier said, I don't know much about Persian music and its relationship to Arab or Indian music.
Edited by gcle2003 - 06-May-2008 at 23:07 |
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Citizen of Ankh-Morpork
Never believe anything until it has been officially denied - Sir Humphrey Appleby, 1984. |
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Cyrus Shahmiri
Tsar
King of Kings Joined: 07-Aug-2004 Location: Iran Online Status: Offline Posts: 3963 |
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Posted: 06-May-2008 at 19:52 |
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There are certainly some differences between them, even between Dutar (2-sting), Sitar (3-string), Chahartar (4-string) and other Persian stringed instruments but we are talking about the origin of them, especially Guitar. What does Kithara mean in Greek? Did Greeks invent it in 490 BC or import a musical instrument with the same name which was used for several hundreds years before this date in Mesopotamia and Persia?
Edited by Cyrus Shahmiri - 06-May-2008 at 19:54 |
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gcle2003
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Posted: 06-May-2008 at 16:16 |
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And it goes on - as you fail to quote - "The Kithara originated in ancient Greece, dating back to 490 B.C. The Kithara was a wooden string instrument that was played with a plectrum, which is similar to what we know today as a pick, and was usually made from the horns of animals "
Was the instrument fretted or unfretted? If it's not fretted it's not a guitar, no matter what it was called. There are lots of four-stringed instruments with a sound box, both with and without a neck. Show me a picture of a chahartar and I'll tell you whether it's a guitar or more like one of the other string of instruments I quoted that your pictures could be depicting.
Incidentally, when your source says "The lyre is closely associated with the kithara and is sometimes hard to distinguish in ancient art" it's wrong. A kithara has a sound box, a lyre doesn't, making it closer to a small harp.
But I guess that a site that provides people with pre-written term papers doesn't want them to be too perfect.
I did. You should try it and read the links. They say everywhere the chahartar is a kind of lute, not a guitar. I see no reason to quarrel with that, since I've already agreed the lute was developed from the oud (largely by adding fixed frets, which wouldn't work in Arabic music).
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Citizen of Ankh-Morpork
Never believe anything until it has been officially denied - Sir Humphrey Appleby, 1984. |
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Cyrus Shahmiri
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Posted: 06-May-2008 at 14:41 |
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gcle2003, all things have not just been invented by Europeans, you know that Guitar comes from the Greek word "Kithara" which itself comes from the Old Assyrian word "Chetarah", please read it: History of the Stringed Instrument, Music: http://www.collegetermpapers.com/TermPapers/Music/History_of_the_Stringed_Instrument.shtml "Early Greek pottery depicts the kithara to have four strings, and later models included seven strings." Don't you think that it was the same ancient Persian stringed instrument "Chahartar" which just means "four strings" (Chahar=Four & Tar=String)? Please search about Chahartar (4-string) in the Google: http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&q=chahartar Edited by Cyrus Shahmiri - 06-May-2008 at 15:25 |
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gcle2003
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Posted: 06-May-2008 at 11:08 |
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You're dead obviously not a musician, asnd know nothing about the history of music, or you wouldn't come up with such nonsense. Before you so pompously pronounce wild assertions based on your complete lack of knowledge of the subject, learn a little about it. Or just listen to some Arab music and some medieval European music, assuming you are not tone deaf. There's plenty of it available.
Nonsense. In this field you are a total ignoramus and you have completely failed to produce anything from any expert of any kind at all giving your thesis any support.
I don't know how you have the chutzpah to say you know nothing about something but you know you are right.
Any influence the Arab world may have had on architecture, art, science, mathematics, philosophy, religion, whatever is completely irrelevant to the question of whether Arab music had any influence on European music. The only thing that is relevant is the music.
Why? It's me (and Chilbudios) that knows about the music. You don't. You're an ignoramus in the subject. You cannot make any worthwhile assumption based on anything you know, because you know nothing abou the topic.
My denial is based on the fact that I've studied the history of music, I definitely know what kind of music was played in the middle ages, I have a pretty clear understanding of the structure and theory of classical Greek music, and I've also read a lot about Arab music. And I've also listened to Arab and medieval music, though not to too much Greek music.
Your position is pure propaganda based on nothing at all.
I don't get upset about your laughing. I'm merely pointing out that it is ludicrous because it is you who are being laughed at for pontificating about things you know nothing about.
Edited by gcle2003 - 06-May-2008 at 11:10 |
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Citizen of Ankh-Morpork
Never believe anything until it has been officially denied - Sir Humphrey Appleby, 1984. |
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pinguin
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Posted: 06-May-2008 at 01:13 |
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I am just claiming that Europe owes a good chunk of its modern culture to the Muslim age of glory, music included.
I am not a musician so I can't prove you wrong. You show me your scales and other technicalities and you push me away from the discussion.
However, I am not an ignorant in the history of culture, and I know from the experts of the Iberian and Ibero-american countries, that you are wrong. Perhaps the reason is because the Iberian culture is more open to accept the ancient Muslim glory, than the rest of Europe.
So, I just assume your denial has other reasons, that has nothing to do with music.
Finally, why you get upset with my laughing, and get so serious, if I am doing the clown?
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"He who attempts to count the stars, not even knowing how to count the knots of the 'quipus'(counting string), ought to be held in derision."
Inca Pachacutec (1438-1471) |
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gcle2003
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Posted: 05-May-2008 at 21:04 |
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Why should anyone listen to you when you know nothing at all about music, let alone its history and development? It's not as if you'd ever found anyone authority that agrees with you, or any example of a European composition from the middle ages that shows any sign of influence from the Arab world.
Now apparently you're claiming that all Islamic music is the same, and the same as Arab music, which again shows your ignorance. Unless you mean Pakistanis and Indonesians aren't Islamic now? Their music has pretty little if any connection with Arab music either. The subcontinent has pretty much the same music everywhere. (Classically anyway.)
And that ludicrous laughing icon doesn't alter the fact you are making a fool of yourself here. Edited by gcle2003 - 05-May-2008 at 21:04 |
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Citizen of Ankh-Morpork
Never believe anything until it has been officially denied - Sir Humphrey Appleby, 1984. |
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pinguin
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Posted: 05-May-2008 at 19:44 |
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Yes. I used the term "arab" in the broad sense, like is used in the Spanish Speaking world, to mean people that "writes in Arabic characters"
But you are right, I meant Islamic civilization of the Middle Ages, particularly the one that influenced Al-Andalus.
By the way, could you convince the fellow in this list that the Persian music influenced Westerners. He doesn't listen to me
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"He who attempts to count the stars, not even knowing how to count the knots of the 'quipus'(counting string), ought to be held in derision."
Inca Pachacutec (1438-1471) |
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